Question bank

What does SHARP stand for, and what regulation governs it?

Sexual Harassment/Assault Response and Prevention. It is governed by AR 600-52, the Army's first standalone SHARP regulation, which took effect in February 2025. Before that, SHARP was covered inside AR 600-20.

What are the two types of sexual assault reports, and what is the difference?

Restricted and unrestricted. A restricted report is confidential. It gets the victim medical care, advocacy, legal support, and counseling without notifying the command or law enforcement, and it does not start an investigation. An unrestricted report notifies the command and law enforcement and starts an investigation, and the victim still receives the full range of care and support.

Who can a Soldier make a restricted report to?

A Sexual Assault Response Coordinator, a SHARP victim advocate, or a healthcare provider. Telling anyone else, including the chain of command or law enforcement, generally makes the report unrestricted.

What is the Army's equal opportunity policy?

Soldiers and their families are provided equal opportunity and fair treatment based on merit, fitness, and capability, without regard to race, color, religion, sex, or national origin. Unlawful discrimination and harassment are prohibited on and off post, on and off duty.

What are the two types of equal opportunity complaints, and how is a formal one filed?

Informal and formal. An informal complaint is resolved directly, with the help of a peer, a leader, or an equal opportunity professional, and is not written up. A formal complaint is filed in writing on DA Form 7279 and sworn to, normally within 60 calendar days of the incident, and it triggers required actions and timelines.

What is the purpose of the Army Substance Abuse Program?

To strengthen readiness by preventing alcohol and other drug abuse, identifying Soldiers who need help early, getting them into treatment, and restoring them to duty when they can perform. It is a command program, not a medical program that runs itself.

What are the ways a Soldier can enter the Army Substance Abuse Program?

Self-referral, command referral, medical referral, and identification through drug testing or an investigation. Self-referral is the route the Army pushes hardest, because a Soldier who asks for help before there is an incident gets certain protections that a Soldier identified after the fact does not.

What is the limited use policy?

It restricts how the Army may use certain protected information a Soldier provides in connection with substance abuse treatment, such as a voluntary self-referral or information developed during treatment. That information generally may not be used against the Soldier in a court-martial or as the basis for a characterization of discharge. It does not protect a Soldier from the consequences of independently discovered misconduct.

What is Army Community Service?

The Army's installation-level family and Soldier support agency, established in 1965. Its motto is self-help, service, and stability. ACS delivers relocation readiness, financial readiness, employment readiness, family advocacy, the Exceptional Family Member Program, mobilization and deployment support, survivor outreach, and information and referral.

What is Army Emergency Relief and what does it provide?

AER is the Army's private nonprofit relief organization, founded in 1942. It provides emergency financial assistance to Soldiers and their families as an interest-free loan, a grant, or a combination of the two, and it funds scholarships for spouses and dependent children. Under the commander's referral program, a company commander or first sergeant can approve assistance quickly.

What does BOSS stand for and what are its three pillars?

Better Opportunities for Single Soldiers. Its three pillars are quality of life, community service, and recreation and leisure. It was created in 1989 and gives single and unaccompanied Soldiers a voice to their leadership.

What does ACE stand for in suicide prevention?

Ask, Care, Escort. Ask the person directly whether they are thinking about suicide. Care for them by listening without judging and by removing access to lethal means. Escort them to help and stay with them until they are in the hands of a chaplain, a behavioral health provider, or the chain of command.

How does a Soldier reach the Military Crisis Line?

Dial 988 and press 1. It is staffed around the clock and also reachable by text and online chat.

As an NCO, what is your role when a Soldier tells you they are thinking about suicide?

Take it seriously and act immediately. Ask directly, stay with the Soldier, remove access to weapons and other lethal means, and escort the Soldier to a chaplain, behavioral health, or the emergency room. Notify the chain of command. Do not leave the Soldier alone and do not promise secrecy.

What regulation governs Army awards and decorations?

AR 600-8-22, Military Awards. It sets the criteria, the approval authorities, and the order of precedence. DA PAM 670-1 then shows how those awards are arranged and worn on the uniform.

List the order of precedence of U.S. military decorations from the Medal of Honor down through the Army Achievement Medal.

Medal of Honor, Distinguished Service Cross, Defense Distinguished Service Medal, Distinguished Service Medal, Silver Star, Defense Superior Service Medal, Legion of Merit, Distinguished Flying Cross, Soldier's Medal, Bronze Star Medal, Purple Heart, Defense Meritorious Service Medal, Meritorious Service Medal, Air Medal, Joint Service Commendation Medal, Army Commendation Medal, Joint Service Achievement Medal, Army Achievement Medal.

What is the highest award for valor, and who awards it?

The Medal of Honor. It is awarded by the President in the name of Congress for conspicuous gallantry and intrepidity at the risk of life above and beyond the call of duty in action against an enemy of the United States.

What is the second highest Army decoration for valor?

The Distinguished Service Cross. It is awarded for extraordinary heroism in action against an enemy of the United States where the action does not justify the Medal of Honor. The Navy Cross and the Air Force Cross are its equivalents in those services.

Who is eligible for the Purple Heart?

A Soldier who is wounded or killed as a result of enemy action, or of an act of an international terrorist attack or friendly fire under the conditions the regulation specifies. The wound must have required treatment by a medical officer and the treatment must be documented in the Soldier's records. It is an entitlement based on the wound, not a recommendation weighed against other Soldiers.

What is the Soldier's Medal awarded for?

Heroism not involving conflict with an armed enemy. The act must involve voluntary risk of life. It is a high decoration, and the standard is deliberately demanding: saving a life at genuine personal risk, not simply performing well in an emergency.

What is the overall order of precedence for wearing awards on the uniform?

U.S. military decorations, U.S. unit awards, U.S. nonmilitary decorations, the Good Conduct Medal, U.S. campaign and service medals, U.S. service and training ribbons, U.S. Merchant Marine awards, foreign military decorations, foreign unit awards, and non-U.S. service awards.

How are ribbons arranged on the service uniform?

Ribbons are worn in order of precedence, reading from the wearer's right to left and from the top row down. Rows are built so that no row contains more ribbons than the row beneath it. Placement measurements for the coat and shirt are in DA PAM 670-1.

Name the Army unit awards in order of precedence.

Presidential Unit Citation, Joint Meritorious Unit Award, Valorous Unit Award, Meritorious Unit Commendation, and Army Superior Unit Award.

How do unit awards differ from individual decorations in the way they are worn?

Unit award emblems are worn on the right side of the service or dress coat, above the pocket, in a gold frame. Individual decorations and ribbons are worn on the left side. A Soldier keeps a unit award permanently only if assigned to the unit during the period cited; otherwise it is worn only while assigned.

What are the criteria for the Army Good Conduct Medal?

It is awarded to enlisted Soldiers for exemplary behavior, efficiency, and fidelity over a qualifying period of continuous honorable active federal service. The standard qualifying period is three years. Shorter periods are recognized in specific cases the regulation lists, such as separation before three years under qualifying conditions or service during a designated period of war.

What is the difference between the Combat Infantryman Badge and the Combat Action Badge?

The Combat Infantryman Badge goes to Soldiers holding an infantry or special forces military occupational specialty, in the grade of colonel or below, who satisfactorily perform their duty while assigned or attached to an infantry or special forces unit of brigade size or smaller during a period in which the unit is engaged in active ground combat. The Combat Action Badge goes to Soldiers who are not eligible for the Combat Infantryman Badge or the Combat Medical Badge and who are personally present and actively engaging or being engaged by the enemy.

What is the Expert Soldier Badge and who can earn it?

The Expert Soldier Badge is the expertise badge for Soldiers who are not eligible for the Expert Infantryman Badge or the Expert Field Medical Badge. It is earned by passing a demanding standardized test of physical fitness, weapons, land navigation, and warrior tasks. It is a special skill badge, not a combat badge.

How does a Soldier show a second or subsequent award of the same decoration?

With an oak leaf cluster on the ribbon for most Army decorations. Numerals, service stars, and other devices are used on specific awards where the regulation prescribes them, such as campaign stars on service medals. The device authorized for each award is listed in AR 600-8-22.

What does CBRN stand for?

Chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear.

What does MOPP stand for, and what are the postures?

Mission-oriented protective posture. The postures are MOPP Ready, MOPP 0, MOPP 1, MOPP 2, MOPP 3, and MOPP 4. The commander sets the level to balance protection against the heat and performance cost of wearing the gear.

What is required at MOPP Ready and at MOPP 0?

At MOPP Ready the Soldier carries the protective mask, and the rest of the ensemble is available to be issued: the first set within two hours and a second set within six hours. At MOPP 0 the Soldier carries the mask and has the suit, boots, and gloves readily available.

What is worn at MOPP 1, MOPP 2, MOPP 3, and MOPP 4?

MOPP 1, the overgarment is worn. MOPP 2, the overgarment and overboots are worn. MOPP 3, the overgarment, overboots, and mask with hood are worn. MOPP 4, everything is worn, including the gloves. Items not yet worn stay carried.

What is M8 paper used for and what do the colors mean?

M8 paper detects and gives a presumptive identification of liquid chemical agents. Yellow or gold indicates a G-series nerve agent, dark green indicates a V-series nerve agent, and red indicates a blister agent. It only works on liquid, not vapor, and a color change is presumptive, not confirmation.

What is M9 paper and how does it differ from M8 paper?

M9 paper is adhesive-backed tape worn on the uniform or attached to equipment. It turns red, pink, or reddish purple when it touches a liquid chemical agent droplet. Unlike M8 paper, it detects that an agent is present but does not identify which agent it is.

What are the four general categories of chemical agents?

Nerve agents, blister agents, blood agents, and choking agents. Riot control agents and incapacitating agents are also encountered but are not casualty agents in the same sense.

What signs point to nerve agent exposure?

The mnemonic SLUDGEM covers them: salivation, lacrimation or tearing, urination, defecation, gastrointestinal distress, emesis or vomiting, and miosis, which is pinpointing of the pupils. Add muscle twitching, difficulty breathing, and convulsions as exposure worsens.

What are the levels of decontamination?

Immediate, operational, and thorough. Immediate decontamination is what the Soldier does right away to save life and limit spread. Operational decontamination lets the unit keep fighting by cleaning what Soldiers touch. Thorough decontamination reduces contamination enough to return to near-normal operations and requires support and a site.

What are the three techniques of immediate decontamination?

Skin decontamination, personal wipe-down, and operator spray-down. Skin decontamination comes first and must start within seconds of contamination to do any good.

What is the difference between a custom and a courtesy?

A custom is a practice the Army has followed so long that it carries the force of tradition. A courtesy is an act of respect and politeness Soldiers show one another and show to the nation's symbols. The salute is both.

Who is entitled to the hand salute?

Commissioned and warrant officers of the United States armed forces, commissioned and warrant officers of friendly foreign nations, and recipients of the Medal of Honor regardless of their rank.

At what distance do you render the hand salute?

At about six paces, or at the nearest point of approach if the situation does not allow six paces. Hold the salute until it is returned or the officer has passed.

When is a salute not required?

When it is impractical or unsafe. Common examples are indoors except when reporting, in formation unless the leader commands present arms, in public gatherings such as sporting events or religious services, when either party is driving a vehicle, when carrying articles with both hands, when engaged in work that the salute would interrupt, and when in the field under tactical conditions where a salute would identify a leader to the enemy.

How does a Soldier report to an officer in the officer's office?

Remove headgear, knock once, and enter when told. Approach to about two steps from the desk, halt, salute, and report, for example: Sir, Sergeant Jones reporting as ordered. Hold the salute until it is returned. When the business is finished, salute again, hold it until it is returned, execute the appropriate facing movement, and depart.

What courtesies do you render outdoors, in uniform and not in formation, during reveille?

At the first note of reveille, come to attention, face the flag, and render the hand salute. If the flag is not in view, face the direction of the music. Hold the salute until the last note.

What courtesies do you render outdoors, in uniform and not in formation, during retreat?

At the first note of retreat, come to attention and face the flag, or face the music if the flag is not in view. At the first note of To the Color, render the hand salute and hold it until the last note.

What does a unit in formation do during retreat and To the Color?

At the first note of retreat, the leader commands parade rest and the formation holds it. The leader then calls the formation to attention, and at the first note of To the Color commands present arms. The formation holds present arms until the last note, then the leader commands order arms.

What are you required to do if you are in a vehicle when reveille or retreat sounds?

Stop the vehicle. Occupants remain seated at attention. Do not render the hand salute from inside the vehicle.

What do you do during the national anthem when you are indoors and in uniform?

Stand at attention and face the flag, or face the music if no flag is present. Do not salute unless you are under arms.

What do you do during the national anthem when you are in civilian clothes?

Stand at attention facing the flag and place the right hand over the heart. If you are wearing headgear, remove it with the right hand and hold it over the left shoulder so the hand is over the heart. Service members and veterans not in uniform may render the hand salute instead.

What are the three general orders?

One. I will guard everything within the limits of my post and quit my post only when properly relieved. Two. I will obey my special orders and perform all my duties in a military manner. Three. I will report violations of my special orders, emergencies, and anything not covered in my instructions to the commander of the relief.

What is the difference between general orders and special orders on guard?

General orders apply to every guard, everywhere, at all times. Special orders apply to a particular post and are issued by the commander who established that post. General orders never change; special orders change with the post and the mission.

What are the two parts of a drill command?

The preparatory command, which states the movement to be carried out and mentally prepares the Soldier for it, and the command of execution, which tells when to carry it out.

What are the four types of drill commands?

Two-part commands, which have a preparatory command and a command of execution. Combined commands, where the two parts are combined into one, such as FALL IN, AT EASE, and REST. Supplementary commands, which subordinate leaders give to reinforce or complete the leader's command. Directives, which are oral orders that direct subordinate leaders to put their elements into motion.

What command revokes a preparatory command?

AS YOU WERE. It cancels a preparatory command, but it cannot cancel a command of execution once that command has been given.

What are the four rest positions executed at the halt?

Parade rest, stand at ease, at ease, and rest.

What is the cadence for quick time and for double time?

Quick time is 120 steps per minute. Double time is 180 steps per minute. Both use a 30-inch step.

Which marching steps are 15 inches?

The half step, the right step, the left step, and the back step. All of them are executed for short distances only.

What is the difference between distance and interval?

Distance is the space between elements front to rear. The distance between ranks is 40 inches. Interval is the lateral space between Soldiers side by side, measured from shoulder to shoulder.

What is normal interval and what is close interval?

Normal interval is one arm's length, obtained by raising the left arm shoulder high. Close interval is about four inches, obtained by placing the left hand on the hip with the elbow in line with the body.

What are the characteristics of a good command voice?

Loudness, projection, distinctness, inflection, and snap.

What are the three methods used to teach drill?

The step-by-step method, used for most marching movements. The talk-through method, used for movements that require several actions at once. The by-the-numbers method, used for movements that have two or more counts.

What are the three phases of tactical combat casualty care?

Care under fire, tactical field care, and tactical evacuation care.

What does the acronym MARCH stand for, and why is it used in that order?

Massive hemorrhage, airway, respiration, circulation, and hypothermia or head injury. The order puts uncontrolled bleeding first because hemorrhage is the leading cause of preventable death on the battlefield.

What are your priorities during care under fire?

Return fire and gain fire superiority, keep yourself from becoming a casualty, and get the casualty to cover if it can be done safely. The only medical treatment expected is stopping life-threatening extremity bleeding with a tourniquet. Airway management and detailed assessment wait until tactical field care.

How do you apply a tourniquet during care under fire?

Apply it high and tight on the injured limb, over the uniform, well above the wound. Tighten until the bleeding stops, secure the windlass, and note the time of application. Refine the placement later during tactical field care.

How does tourniquet placement change once you reach tactical field care?

Reassess the wound and, if the situation allows, move the tourniquet to roughly two to three inches above the wound and never directly over a joint. Tighten until the bleeding stops and the distal pulse is gone. Write the time of application on the tourniquet and the casualty card. Do not loosen or remove a tourniquet that has been applied.

What are the signs and symptoms of shock?

Pale, cool, clammy skin; a rapid and weak pulse; rapid breathing; restlessness or confusion; nausea and thirst; and, as it worsens, loss of consciousness.

How do you treat a casualty for shock?

Control the bleeding first. Lay the casualty on their back and elevate the legs if there is no injury that prevents it, loosen tight clothing, keep them warm and off the cold ground to prevent hypothermia, reassure them, and do not give food or drink. Evacuate.

What are the three heat injuries, and which one is a medical emergency?

Heat cramps, heat exhaustion, and heatstroke. Heatstroke is the medical emergency. It is a failure of the body to control its own temperature and it can kill quickly.

How do you treat a suspected heatstroke casualty?

Treat it as a life-threatening emergency. Move the casualty to shade, strip off gear and outer clothing, and start cooling immediately with water, ice sheets, or immersion while fanning. Do not force fluids into an unconscious casualty. Request MEDEVAC and keep cooling while you wait.

Name the common cold weather injuries.

Hypothermia, frostbite, immersion foot or trench foot, chilblain, snow blindness, and dehydration. Cold weather does not stop dehydration, and Soldiers routinely underdrink in the cold.

What are the nine lines of a MEDEVAC request?

Line 1, location of the pickup site. Line 2, radio frequency, call sign, and suffix. Line 3, number of patients by precedence. Line 4, special equipment required. Line 5, number of patients by type, litter or ambulatory. Line 6, security of the pickup site. Line 7, method of marking the pickup site. Line 8, patient nationality and status. Line 9, CBRN contamination.

Which MEDEVAC lines change between wartime and peacetime, and how?

Lines 6 and 9. In wartime, line 6 is the security of the pickup site and line 9 is CBRN contamination. In peacetime, line 6 is the number and type of wound, injury, or illness, and line 9 is a description of the terrain at the pickup site.

What is the difference between MEDEVAC and CASEVAC?

MEDEVAC uses a dedicated, marked medical evacuation platform with medical personnel and en route care. CASEVAC moves casualties on a vehicle or aircraft of opportunity with no dedicated medical crew or en route treatment. Use CASEVAC when MEDEVAC is not available and the delay would cost the casualty.

What are the three parts of a complete military grid reference system coordinate?

The grid zone designation, the 100,000-meter square identifier, and the numerical grid coordinate read to the required precision.

What is the rule for reading a grid coordinate?

Read right and up. Read the easting first, left to right along the bottom, then the northing, bottom to top. The digits are always split evenly between the two.

How precisely does a four-, six-, eight-, and ten-digit grid coordinate locate a point?

Four digits locate a point to within 1,000 meters, six digits to within 100 meters, eight digits to within 10 meters, and ten digits to within 1 meter.

What are the five major terrain features?

Hill, ridge, valley, saddle, and depression.

What are the three minor terrain features and the two supplementary terrain features?

The three minor terrain features are draw, spur, and cliff. The two supplementary terrain features are cut and fill, both of which are man-made.

What is the difference between a draw and a spur?

A draw is a less developed stream course where the ground slopes upward on three sides and downward in one direction; water drains through it. A spur is a short, sloping line of higher ground extending out from the side of a ridge; water drains away from it on both sides. On a map the contour lines of a draw point toward high ground and those of a spur point away from it.

What are the three norths shown on a military map?

True north, magnetic north, and grid north. They appear together in the declination diagram in the map margin. True north is shown by a star, grid north by the letters GN, and magnetic north by a half arrow.

What is the G-M angle?

The grid-magnetic angle: the angular difference between grid north and magnetic north for that map sheet. It is shown in the declination diagram along with the conversion instructions used to change a magnetic azimuth to a grid azimuth or the reverse. Always use the conversion notes printed on the sheet you are working from.

How do you determine a back azimuth?

If the azimuth is less than 180 degrees, add 180 degrees. If it is 180 degrees or more, subtract 180 degrees. In mils, add or subtract 3,200.

What are the three types of contour lines?

Index contours, which are heavier and carry the elevation number; intermediate contours, the lighter lines between index contours that are not numbered; and supplementary contours, dashed lines that show detail at half the contour interval.

What do the standard colors on a military map represent?

Black shows man-made features. Blue shows water. Green shows vegetation. Brown shows relief features such as contour lines. Red classifies main roads and built-up areas. Red-brown replaces both red and brown on maps printed for red-light reading.

What is a pace count and how do you establish one?

A pace count is the number of paces you take to cover a known distance, and it is how you keep track of distance while navigating dismounted. Establish it by walking a measured 100-meter course several times, counting one pace each time the same foot strikes the ground, then averaging the counts. Re-check it for hills, heavy brush, sand, snow, darkness, and a heavy load, because all of them change it.

What is the difference between intersection and resection?

Intersection locates an unknown point on the ground by sighting on it from two or more known positions. Resection locates your own unknown position by sighting on two or more known, plotted points. Modified resection fixes your position when you are already on a linear feature such as a road or a stream.

What is the Army definition of leadership?

Leadership is the activity of influencing people by providing purpose, direction, and motivation to accomplish the mission and improve the organization.

What are the three attributes of an Army leader?

Character, presence, and intellect.

What falls under the attribute of character?

The Army Values, empathy, the Warrior Ethos and Service Ethos, discipline, and humility.

What falls under the attribute of presence?

Military and professional bearing, fitness, confidence, and resilience.

What falls under the attribute of intellect?

Mental agility, sound judgment, innovation, interpersonal tact, and expertise.

What are the three categories of the core leader competencies?

Leads, develops, and achieves.

Name the ten core leader competencies.

Under leads: leads others, builds trust, extends influence beyond the chain of command, leads by example, and communicates. Under develops: creates a positive environment and fosters esprit de corps, prepares self, develops others, and stewards the profession. Under achieves: gets results.

What are the three levels of leadership?

Direct, organizational, and strategic.

What are the Army Values?

Loyalty, duty, respect, selfless service, honor, integrity, and personal courage. The acronym is LDRSHIP.

What are the four lines of the Warrior Ethos?

I will always place the mission first. I will never accept defeat. I will never quit. I will never leave a fallen comrade.

What are the characteristics of the Army Profession?

Trust, honorable service, military expertise, stewardship, and esprit de corps.

What are the three types of developmental counseling?

Event-oriented counseling, performance counseling, and professional growth counseling.

What form is used to document developmental counseling?

DA Form 4856, the Developmental Counseling Form.

What is the Uniform Code of Military Justice?

It is the federal law that establishes the military justice system, enacted by Congress in 1950 and effective in 1951. It defines military criminal offenses, sets out the types of courts-martial, and provides for nonjudicial punishment.

What is the difference between an Article 15 and a court-martial?

An Article 15 is nonjudicial punishment imposed by a commander for minor offenses. It is not a criminal conviction, the commander decides the case, and punishments are limited by the commander's grade. A court-martial is a federal criminal trial with a military judge, counsel, and in most cases a panel. A conviction at a court-martial is a criminal conviction and can include a punitive discharge and confinement.

What are the three types of Article 15?

Summarized, company grade, and field grade.

What are the maximum punishments under a summarized Article 15?

Extra duty for up to 14 days, restriction for up to 14 days, an oral reprimand or admonition, or any combination of those. A summarized Article 15 cannot reduce a Soldier or take pay.

Can a Soldier refuse an Article 15?

Yes. A Soldier may demand trial by court-martial instead of accepting nonjudicial punishment, unless the Soldier is attached to or embarked in a vessel. Refusing an Article 15 does not guarantee the case goes to trial, but the commander may not impose the Article 15 over the Soldier's demand.

How long does a Soldier have to appeal an Article 15, and to whom?

Five calendar days from the imposition of punishment, submitted to the next superior authority above the commander who imposed it. An appeal filed after that may be rejected as untimely.

What form records an Article 15?

DA Form 2627, the Record of Proceedings Under Article 15, UCMJ. Summarized proceedings are recorded on DA Form 2627-1.

What are the three types of courts-martial?

Summary, special, and general. The summary court-martial handles minor offenses by enlisted Soldiers and consists of one commissioned officer. The special court-martial is the intermediate level and can adjudge confinement of up to one year and a bad-conduct discharge. The general court-martial is the highest level and may adjudge any punishment authorized for the offense, including a dishonorable discharge and, where the law allows, death.

What rights does Article 31, UCMJ, give a Soldier?

Before questioning a Soldier suspected of an offense, the questioner must tell the Soldier of the nature of the accusation, advise the Soldier of the right not to make any statement about the offense, and warn that any statement may be used as evidence in a trial by court-martial. No one may compel a Soldier to incriminate himself or herself.

When was the noncommissioned officer corps born?

In 1775, with the birth of the Continental Army. The Army has had noncommissioned officers from its first day.

What is the Blue Book and why does it matter to noncommissioned officers?

It is Baron Friedrich von Steuben's Regulations for the Order and Discipline of the Troops of the United States, published in 1779 after he drilled the Continental Army at Valley Forge. It was the Army's first standard manual and the first document to spell out the duties of noncommissioned officers.

When was the position of Sergeant Major of the Army established, and who was the first to hold it?

The position was established in 1966. Sergeant Major of the Army William O. Wooldridge was the first, sworn in that July.

Who wrote the NCO Creed, and when?

It was drafted in 1973 by the NCO Subcommittee of the Command and Leadership Committee at the U.S. Army Infantry School, Fort Benning, Georgia. Sergeant First Class Earle Brigham is credited with starting it. It was first printed in Infantry School texts in 1974.

What is the first sentence of the NCO Creed?

No one is more professional than I.

How do the second and third paragraphs of the NCO Creed begin?

The second begins: Competence is my watchword. The third begins: Officers of my unit will have maximum time to accomplish their duties; they will not have to accomplish mine.

Recite the Soldier's Creed.

I am an American Soldier. I am a warrior and a member of a team. I serve the people of the United States and live the Army Values. I will always place the mission first. I will never accept defeat. I will never quit. I will never leave a fallen comrade. I am disciplined, physically and mentally tough, trained and proficient in my warrior tasks and drills. I always maintain my arms, my equipment, and myself. I am an expert and I am a professional. I stand ready to deploy, engage, and destroy the enemies of the United States of America in close combat. I am a guardian of freedom and the American way of life. I am an American Soldier.

What is the chain of command?

The succession of commanders from a superior to a subordinate through which command is exercised. It is the leader's primary channel for issuing orders and passing information.

What is the NCO support channel and how does it relate to the chain of command?

It is the leadership channel that parallels and reinforces the chain of command. It runs from the command sergeant major to the first sergeant to the platoon sergeant to the squad, section, or team leader. It is used to transmit and enforce standards, carry out the commander's orders, and supervise Soldiers' daily duties. It does not replace the chain of command and it is not a separate chain.

What are the three types of duties an NCO performs?

Specified duties, which come from regulations, directives, and job descriptions; directed duties, which a leader assigns; and implied duties, which are not written down but must be done to support the mission and take care of Soldiers.

Name the courses of the Noncommissioned Officer Professional Development System in order.

The Basic Leader Course, the Advanced Leader Course, the Senior Leader Course, the Master Leader Course, and the Sergeants Major Course.

What is the Army physical fitness test of record, and what did it replace?

The Army Fitness Test, abbreviated AFT. It became the test of record on 1 June 2025 and replaced the Army Combat Fitness Test. The change removed the standing power throw and left five events.

Name the five events of the Army Fitness Test in order.

Three repetition maximum deadlift, hand release push up with arm extension, sprint drag carry, plank, and two mile run.

How is the Army Fitness Test scored, and what is a passing score?

Each event is scored from 0 to 100 points, so the maximum total is 500. A Soldier must earn at least 60 points in every event to pass. Failing a single event fails the test regardless of the total.

What form is the fitness test recorded on?

DA Form 705, the Army Fitness Test Scorecard. It captures raw scores, event points, the total, and the grader and Soldier signatures.

How often must Soldiers take a record fitness test?

Active component Soldiers take two record tests per year. Reserve component Soldiers take one record test per year. Commanders may direct diagnostic tests more often, but a diagnostic is not a test of record.

What are the alternate aerobic events for a Soldier with a permanent profile, and what do they replace?

They replace the two mile run. The alternate aerobic events are the 5,000 meter row, the 15,000 meter stationary bike, the 1,000 meter swim, and the 2.5 mile walk. A Soldier's profile has to authorize the specific event, and alternate aerobic events are graded go or no go rather than on the point scale.

What publication is the Army's physical readiness training doctrine, and what system does it describe?

FM 7-22, Holistic Health and Fitness. It describes the H2F system and the five readiness domains: physical, nutritional, mental, spiritual, and sleep. FM 7-22 is the training system. ATP 7-22.01 carries the testing procedures.

What are the three components of a physical readiness training session?

Preparation, activities, and recovery. Preparation readies the body for the session, activities are the training itself, and recovery brings the Soldier back to a resting state and reduces injury risk.

What are the three principles of physical readiness training?

Precision, progression, and integration. Precision means exercises are performed to standard. Progression means the workload increases in a deliberate, systematic way. Integration means multiple training components are combined in a balanced program.

What is the Army Body Composition Program and what regulation governs it?

The Army Body Composition Program, or ABCP, is the program that ensures Soldiers maintain the military appearance and body composition the Army requires and are able to meet the physical demands of duty. AR 600-9 governs it. The regulation is dated July 2019, and the assessment method has been changed by Army directive since then, so use the current directive with the regulation.

Walk me through the screening process under the Army Body Composition Program.

The Soldier is weighed and measured for height and compared against the screening table weight for their height, age, and sex. A Soldier at or under the screening weight passes and no further assessment is required. A Soldier over the screening weight receives a body fat assessment. If the body fat result exceeds the standard for their age and sex, the Soldier is enrolled in the program and flagged.

What are the maximum allowable body fat percentages by age group in AR 600-9?

For males: 20 percent for ages 17 to 20, 22 percent for 21 to 27, 24 percent for 28 to 39, and 26 percent for 40 and older. For females: 30 percent for 17 to 20, 32 percent for 21 to 27, 34 percent for 28 to 39, and 36 percent for 40 and older.

What happens to a Soldier enrolled in the Army Body Composition Program?

The Soldier is flagged, which suspends favorable personnel actions including promotion, schooling, and reenlistment. The Soldier is referred for nutrition counseling and a medical evaluation, weighed and assessed monthly to measure progress, and counseled in writing. Failure to make satisfactory progress, or repeated enrollment, can lead to separation.

What counts as satisfactory progress once a Soldier is enrolled in the ABCP?

AR 600-9 sets progress as a loss of three to eight pounds per month, or a reduction of about one percent body fat per month. A Soldier who is losing weight at that rate is making progress even if they are still over the standard. A Soldier who is not is subject to separation processing.

What are the five steps of the OPSEC process?

Identify critical information, analyze the threat, analyze vulnerabilities, assess risk, and apply OPSEC measures or countermeasures. The process is continuous, not a one-time check.

What is OPSEC, and what is critical information?

Operations security is the process of denying an adversary the unclassified indicators that, pieced together, would reveal friendly intentions, capabilities, or vulnerabilities. Critical information is the specific information about friendly plans and operations an adversary needs to act effectively against us. Most of what OPSEC protects is not classified.

What are the three levels of classification and the damage standard for each?

Top Secret, where unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause exceptionally grave damage to national security. Secret, where it could be expected to cause serious damage. Confidential, where it could be expected to cause damage.

What three conditions must be met before a person may be given access to classified information?

The person must hold an eligibility determination at or above the level of the information, must have a valid need to know it to do their job, and must have signed a classified information nondisclosure agreement, the SF 312. A clearance by itself is not authority to see everything at that level.

What is a SALUTE report?

The standard format for reporting information about the enemy. Size, activity, location, unit or uniform, time, and equipment. Report it accurately and fast, and keep facts separate from your assessment.

What are the nine lines of a UXO report?

Line 1, date-time group of discovery. Line 2, reporting activity and location of the item. Line 3, contact method, frequency, call sign, and point of contact. Line 4, type of ordnance, dropped, projected, placed, or thrown. Line 5, CBRN contamination. Line 6, resources threatened. Line 7, impact on the mission. Line 8, protective measures already taken. Line 9, recommended priority.

What do you do when you find unexploded ordnance?

Do not touch, move, or disturb it. Mark the area and back away along the route you came in. Establish a cordon that keeps people clear, report it up the chain using the UXO report, and wait for explosive ordnance disposal. Nobody in the unit renders it safe.

What are the five S's and T for handling detainees?

Search, silence, segregate, safeguard, speed to the rear, and tag. Detainees are searched for weapons and documents, kept from talking to one another, separated by rank and category, protected from harm, moved to the rear quickly, and tagged with the time, date, place, and circumstances of capture.

Under the Threat Awareness and Reporting Program, what are you required to report?

Any contact, behavior, or activity that suggests foreign intelligence collection, international terrorism, insider threat, or an attempt to obtain classified or sensitive information. Report it to your commander, security manager, or supporting counterintelligence office. The duty to report belongs to every Soldier, civilian, and contractor, regardless of clearance.

What is the difference between a challenge and password and a running password?

The challenge and password is a two-part exchange used at a fixed point to confirm identity: one element issues the challenge, the other answers with the password. A running password is a single prearranged word used to get a friendly element through a position quickly when there is no time for the exchange, such as when moving under fire.

What are the two primary supply publications a unit works from?

AR 710-2, Supply Policy Below the National Level, is the policy. DA PAM 710-2-1, Using Unit Supply System, Manual Procedures, carries the procedures that implement it. Property accountability and financial liability are in AR 735-5.

What is the difference between expendable, durable, and nonexpendable property?

Expendable property is consumed in use and is not accounted for after it is issued, such as cleaning supplies and batteries. Durable property is not consumed in use and does not go on the property book, but it does require hand receipt control, such as hand tools. Nonexpendable property retains its identity, requires formal property book accountability, and is hand receipted down to the user, such as weapons, vehicles, and radios.

What determines whether an item is expendable, durable, or nonexpendable?

The accounting requirements code assigned to the national stock number in the Army master data. Code X is expendable, code D is durable, and code N is nonexpendable. You look it up rather than judging by price or appearance.

What is a hand receipt and what form is used?

A hand receipt is a document that transfers direct responsibility for property from one person to another and records who physically holds it. DA Form 2062, Hand Receipt or Annex Number, is the form. Signing it means you are accountable for that property and for its condition.

What is the difference between a hand receipt and a sub-hand receipt?

The primary hand receipt holder signs for property directly from the property book officer. A sub-hand receipt is the further issue of that property from the primary hand receipt holder down to a subordinate leader or user. Both use DA Form 2062. Sub-hand receipting pushes direct responsibility down to the person who actually has the item; it does not remove the primary hand receipt holder's responsibility.

What are the five types of responsibility for Army property?

Command responsibility, supervisory responsibility, direct responsibility, custodial responsibility, and personal responsibility. Command responsibility belongs to the commander and cannot be delegated. Direct responsibility belongs to the person who signed for and has physical possession. Personal responsibility belongs to whoever has the item in hand at the moment.

What is the difference between accountability and responsibility?

Accountability is the obligation to keep records showing what property exists, where it is, and what condition it is in. It is a records function that runs through the property book officer. Responsibility is the obligation of an individual to care for and safeguard property in their possession or under their supervision. A commander can be responsible for property that a property book officer is accountable for.

Which inventories does AR 710-2 require of a unit?

A joint inventory when the primary hand receipt holder changes, which is a one hundred percent inventory conducted by the incoming and outgoing holders together. A cyclic or annual inventory of property book items. A recurring inventory of sensitive items. Weapons and ammunition are inventoried under AR 190-11, which is more demanding, and commanders routinely direct more frequent counts than the minimum.

What is a sensitive item, and why is it inventoried differently?

A sensitive item is property that requires a high degree of protection and control because of its potential for harm or its attractiveness for theft. Weapons, ammunition, explosives, night vision devices, communications security equipment, and controlled drugs are typical examples. They are counted by serial number on a recurring basis, and a missing sensitive item is reported immediately rather than at the next inventory.

What do you do the moment you discover a sensitive item is missing?

Stop, secure the area, and report it immediately through the chain of command. Do not wait to search on your own or resolve it quietly. Recount and search under supervision, notify the commander, and follow the unit's serious incident reporting procedures. Adjustment of the property record follows AR 735-5 once the loss is confirmed.

What is the Command Supply Discipline Program?

The Command Supply Discipline Program, or CSDP, is the commander's program for enforcing supply discipline. It is not a new set of rules. It is a compilation of existing regulatory requirements pulled together into checklists that commanders and staff use to evaluate supply operations at every level, identify shortfalls, and fix them. AR 710-2 establishes it.

Who is responsible for the Command Supply Discipline Program in a company?

The commander. The supply sergeant runs the day to day supply operation and maintains the records, but the CSDP is a command program and the commander owns it. First line leaders enforce it by conducting the inventories and sub-hand receipt checks they are required to conduct.

What is a FLIPL and what form starts it?

A financial liability investigation of property loss. It is the formal investigation used when government property is lost, damaged, or destroyed and the loss cannot be settled by other means. It is initiated on DD Form 200, Financial Liability Investigation of Property Loss, and it is governed by AR 735-5.

What must an investigating officer establish before recommending financial liability?

Four things. That the person had responsibility for the property. That the person was culpable, meaning they acted with simple negligence, gross negligence, or willful misconduct. That the negligence or misconduct was the proximate cause of the loss. And the actual amount of the loss. If any one of the four is missing, liability cannot be recommended.

How much can a Soldier be held financially liable for under a FLIPL?

For a loss caused by simple negligence, liability is normally limited to one month of the Soldier's basic pay at the time of the loss, or the actual value of the property, whichever is less. Willful misconduct or gross negligence can make the Soldier liable for the full value. Specific exceptions are listed in AR 735-5.

What rights does a Soldier have when named as respondent in a FLIPL?

The Soldier must be notified in writing of the recommendation and the basis for it, has the right to review the investigation file, may consult with legal counsel, and may submit a rebuttal for the approving authority to consider before a final decision. A Soldier found liable may also request reconsideration on the grounds AR 735-5 allows.

What is DA Form 3749?

The Equipment Receipt, commonly called the weapons card. It is issued to a Soldier and exchanged at the arms room for an individually assigned weapon or piece of equipment. It documents who has the item at any given moment and is turned back in when the item is returned.

What are the steps of the eight-step training model?

Plan the training, train and certify the trainers, reconnoiter the site, issue the order, rehearse, execute, evaluate the training, and retrain. Skipping steps is how training events fail before they start.

What is the company training meeting and why does it matter?

It is the weekly meeting where the company commander plans and prepares near-term training. It is held on the same day and time each week as part of the unit battle rhythm and attended by the leaders who run the training: the executive officer, first sergeant, platoon leaders, platoon sergeants, and supporting section leaders. It is the center of gravity for unit training management because it is where planned training becomes resourced, executable training.

What is the T-week concept?

T-week is a backward-planning framework that ties the weeks before and after a training event to the actions required to prepare for and follow up on it. The week of execution is week T. Week T-6 is six weeks out; week T+1 is the week after. Companies use it in the training meeting so preparation happens on a schedule instead of at the last minute.

What is an after action review, and what are its four steps?

An AAR is a structured professional discussion of an event that lets the participants work out for themselves what happened and how to improve. The four steps are plan, prepare, conduct, and follow up. The follow-up is the part units skip and the part that produces the improvement.

What questions does an after action review answer?

What was supposed to happen, what actually happened, why it happened that way, and what to sustain or improve next time. The leader guides the discussion and the participants do the talking.

What is the difference between a formal and an informal after action review?

A formal AAR is planned and resourced in advance with a scheduled time, a site, training aids, and an outside facilitator or observer. An informal AAR is conducted on the spot by the leader on the ground with whatever is at hand, right after the action, and is the kind Soldiers see most often.

What are the five steps of risk management?

Identify the hazards, assess the hazards, develop controls and make risk decisions, implement controls, and supervise and evaluate. It is a continuous cycle applied to operations, training, and day-to-day activity.

Is composite risk management still the correct term, and what worksheet is used today?

No. The Army dropped composite risk management and returned to risk management with the publication of ATP 5-19. The deliberate risk assessment worksheet is DD Form 2977. DA Form 7566, the old composite risk management worksheet, is obsolete.

What are the risk levels used in a risk assessment?

Extremely high, high, moderate, and low. The level determines who has the authority to accept the residual risk, which is why the assessment goes to the right approval level before execution.

What are the training proficiency ratings under objective task evaluation?

T for trained, T-minus, P for practiced, P-minus, and U for untrained. The commander assesses the unit against the training and evaluation outline for the task rather than against a subjective impression.

What is a METL and what is a T and EO?

A METL is a mission-essential task list, the tasks a unit must be able to perform to accomplish what it was designed to do. A training and evaluation outline, or T and EO, is the standard for a specific task: the conditions, the standard, and the performance measures a leader uses to evaluate it. The T and EO is the starting point for any honest proficiency assessment.

What regulation governs the wear and appearance of Army uniforms and insignia, and what is its companion pamphlet?

AR 670-1, Wear and Appearance of Army Uniforms and Insignia, is the policy. DA PAM 670-1, Guide to the Wear and Appearance of Army Uniforms and Insignia, is the illustrated companion. AR 670-1 tells you what is authorized. DA PAM 670-1 shows you exactly where it goes and how far from the seam.

When is headgear worn, and when is it removed?

Headgear is worn outdoors while in uniform unless the commander or the situation directs otherwise. It is removed indoors unless the Soldier is under arms in an official capacity. It is not worn inside a privately owned vehicle, and it is not required while in or on a military vehicle when the vehicle is enclosed.

How is the beret worn?

The stiffener or flash is centered over the left eye. The headband is straight across the forehead, about one inch above the eyebrows. The excess material is draped over the right ear, between the top of the ear and the top of the head. The beret is not blocked, shaped, or cut.

What are the three principal Army uniforms a Soldier will encounter, and what is each used for?

The Army Combat Uniform in the Operational Camouflage Pattern, or OCP, is the utility and field uniform. The Army Green Service Uniform, or AGSU, is the everyday service uniform for office duty, travel, and most official business. The Army Service Uniform, or ASU, the blue uniform, is worn for dress and formal occasions.

Where is the U.S. flag insignia worn on the Army Combat Uniform, and which way does it face?

The full color or subdued U.S. flag is worn on the right shoulder. It is worn in the reverse field orientation, with the star field toward the front of the wearer, so the flag appears to be streaming backward as the Soldier moves forward.

What is the difference between the patch worn on the left shoulder and the patch worn on the right shoulder?

The left shoulder carries the shoulder sleeve insignia of the Soldier's current organization. The right shoulder carries the shoulder sleeve insignia for former wartime service, commonly called the combat patch, which is the insignia of a unit the Soldier deployed with in a designated hostile fire or combat zone.

What do service stripes and overseas service bars represent, and where is each worn?

Service stripes, often called hash marks, are worn on the lower left sleeve of the service and dress coat. One stripe represents three years of honorable service. Overseas service bars are worn on the lower right sleeve. One bar represents six months of federal service in a designated hostile fire or imminent danger area.

What is the male hair standard in AR 670-1?

Hair on the top of the head is neatly groomed and tapered. Bulk does not exceed two inches. Hair does not fall over the ears or eyebrows and does not touch the collar. Sideburns are neatly trimmed, not flared, and do not extend below the bottom of the ear opening.

What are the standards for a mustache?

A mustache is kept neatly trimmed, tapered, and tidy. No portion of it may cover the upper lip line, extend sideways beyond a vertical line drawn upward from the corner of the mouth, or extend above a line parallel to the lowest portion of the nose. Handlebar mustaches, beards, and goatees are not authorized.

Are beards authorized in the Army?

No. Soldiers keep their faces clean shaven when in uniform or in civilian clothes on duty. The exceptions are an approved religious accommodation and a shaving profile issued by a medical provider. Shaving profile policy has been tightened by Army directive since the 2021 edition of AR 670-1, so check the current directive and the Soldier's profile before you correct anyone.

What jewelry may a Soldier wear in uniform?

No more than two rings at one time, and a wedding set counts as one ring. One conservative wrist watch and one conservative identification bracelet, along with authorized medical alert or prisoner of war and missing in action bracelets. Necklaces may be worn but must not be visible. Body piercing that is visible in uniform is not authorized, and ear gauging is prohibited.

What is the tattoo policy in AR 670-1 as amended by Army directive?

Content is the hard line: tattoos that are extremist, indecent, sexist, or racist are prohibited anywhere on the body, regardless of size or location. For placement, tattoos on the head and face remain prohibited, with an exception for permanent makeup. A 2022 Army directive opened limited placements, including small tattoos on the hands, behind the ears, and on the back of the neck within size limits, and tattoos between the fingers that are not visible when the fingers are closed. Because these limits have changed by directive, verify the current directive before you counsel a Soldier.

What is prohibited while walking in uniform?

Soldiers do not walk while engaged in activities that would interfere with rendering the hand salute and the proper courtesies. That includes eating, drinking, smoking or vaping, and using a cell phone. Hands stay out of pockets except momentarily to place or retrieve an object.

List the enlisted grades and ranks from private through sergeant major of the Army.

Private E-1, private E-2, private first class E-3, specialist and corporal E-4, sergeant E-5, staff sergeant E-6, sergeant first class E-7, master sergeant and first sergeant E-8, and sergeant major, command sergeant major, and sergeant major of the Army at E-9.

What is the difference between a specialist and a corporal, and which is the first noncommissioned officer grade?

Both are E-4. The specialist wears the eagle device and is not a noncommissioned officer. The corporal wears two chevrons, is a noncommissioned officer, and is the entry grade of the NCO corps with the authority and responsibility that come with it.

Describe the insignia for sergeant first class, master sergeant, first sergeant, sergeant major, and command sergeant major.

Sergeant first class wears three chevrons over two rockers. Master sergeant wears three chevrons over three rockers. First sergeant wears the same as master sergeant with a diamond in the center. Sergeant major wears three chevrons over three rockers with a star in the center. Command sergeant major wears the star inside a wreath.

How do you tell the warrant officer grades apart by insignia?

Warrant officer grades use a silver bar with black squares. Warrant officer one has one square, chief warrant officer two has two, chief warrant officer three has three, and chief warrant officer four has four. Chief warrant officer five wears a silver bar with a single black stripe running lengthwise through the center.

List the commissioned officer grades from second lieutenant through general and their insignia.

Second lieutenant, one gold bar. First lieutenant, one silver bar. Captain, two silver bars. Major, a gold oak leaf. Lieutenant colonel, a silver oak leaf. Colonel, a silver eagle. Brigadier general, one star. Major general, two stars. Lieutenant general, three stars. General, four stars.

Where are combat and skill tabs worn, and in what order?

Tabs are worn on the left shoulder above the shoulder sleeve insignia. When more than one is authorized the order from the top down is Special Forces, Ranger, then Sapper. A Soldier may wear no more than three of these tabs at one time.

On the enlisted service or dress coat, which collar carries the U.S. insignia and which carries branch insignia?

Enlisted Soldiers wear the U.S. insignia disc on the right collar and the branch insignia disc on the left collar. Both are centered on the collar as prescribed in DA PAM 670-1.

What are the four weapons safety rules?

Treat every weapon as if it is loaded. Never point the weapon at anything you do not intend to engage or destroy. Keep the selector on safe until you intend to fire. Keep your finger straight and off the trigger until you intend to fire.

What are the eight steps in the cycle of function of the M4 or M16 series weapon?

Feeding, chambering, locking, firing, unlocking, extracting, ejecting, and cocking.

What is immediate action on the M4, and what does SPORTS stand for?

Immediate action is the action a Soldier takes to reduce a stoppage without looking for the cause. It is remembered as SPORTS: slap upward on the magazine, pull the charging handle to the rear, observe the chamber for ejection of the round, release the charging handle, tap the forward assist, and squeeze the trigger. Confirm the selector is on safe before you begin.

What are the four weapons safety statuses?

Green, amber, red, and black. Green is magazine removed, chamber empty, selector on safe. Amber is magazine inserted, chamber empty, bolt forward, selector on safe. Red is magazine inserted, round in the chamber, bolt forward, selector on safe. Black is magazine inserted, round in the chamber, bolt forward, selector on fire.

What is the difference between weapons safety status red and black?

Both have a magazine inserted, a round in the chamber, and the bolt forward. The difference is the selector: red is on safe, black is on fire. Black is the only status in which the weapon will fire if the trigger is pulled.

What are the three weapons control statuses?

Weapons hold, weapons tight, and weapons free. Weapons hold means engage only in self-defense or when directly ordered. Weapons tight means engage only targets positively identified as hostile. Weapons free means engage any target not positively identified as friendly.

What is the maximum effective range of the M4 carbine?

500 meters against a point target and 600 meters against an area target.

What is the difference between a stoppage and a malfunction?

A stoppage is any unintentional interruption in the cycle of function. A malfunction is the mechanical or procedural failure that caused it. Immediate action clears the stoppage; remedial action finds and fixes the malfunction.

Describe the M249 light machine gun and give its maximum effective range.

The M249 is a 5.56 mm, gas-operated, air-cooled, belt-fed or magazine-fed automatic weapon that fires from the open-bolt position. Its maximum effective range is 800 meters against an area target when fired from the bipod.

Describe the M240B machine gun and give its ranges.

The M240B is a 7.62 mm, gas-operated, air-cooled, belt-fed machine gun that fires from the open-bolt position. Maximum effective range is 800 meters on the bipod and 1,800 meters on the tripod with the traversing and elevation mechanism. Maximum range is 3,725 meters.

What is the maximum effective range and maximum range of the M2 .50 caliber machine gun?

Maximum effective range is 1,830 meters. Maximum range is 6,764 meters. The M2 is a .50 caliber, recoil-operated, air-cooled, belt-fed machine gun.

What is the main advantage of the M2A1 over the older M2 heavy barrel machine gun?

The M2A1 has fixed headspace and timing and a quick-change barrel. The crew no longer has to set headspace and timing during a barrel change, which removes a common source of injury and damage and cuts the time the gun is out of action.

What are the ranges of the M320 grenade launcher?

Maximum effective range is 150 meters against a point target and 350 meters against an area target. Maximum range is 400 meters.